1. GrumbleDook
    Sorry Witch ... thought I would take it into here rather than get very OT in that thread.

    Quote Originally Posted by witch View Post
    Now that IS disppointing, Grumbledook - 'who should be answering whom' is correct
    I'm going to be terribly OT on this ... sorry ...
    Whom is for the objective and who is for the subjective, but since I have been talking about talking to myself I am both objective and subjective, so it is one of the rare times when it is acceptable (but still unforgivable) to say 'who should be answering who'. I could have used 'whom' in both instances but that is equally as confusing.
    We were shown this at school during Latin lessons and there are similar confusions in there (nominative / vocative) which can be used for rather poor latin jokes.
    Thankfully I remember hardly any of them ... I am sad, but not that sad!
  2. witch
    Ah, but the way I was taught - you stated that you are both the objective and the subjective - so the rules still apply: 'whom' for the part of you that is the objective, and 'who' for the subjective bit, so you still end up with 'who should be talking to whom'
    In this instance, the two parts of you are not the same and so the standard rules still apply.
    I didn't do latin
  3. timzim
    If either of you studied German you'd know that 'whom' is about the only example of the dative in the English language, therefore there must be a preposition before it, e.g. 'to whom', 'from whom', 'by whom', etc.

    So 'who should be answering who' IS correct, as is 'who should be answering to whom' (although this now has a different meaning because of the preposition, of course).
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